🥳JESUS' PRE-HUMAN EXISTENCE🥳

[BigJohn]

Originally Posted by ThatMan

EXCERPT
I think they did that on purpose, maybe they all thought that it was about the same God, maybe they wanted to put all these writtings under one God to avoid some kind of split up, creating more problems.

If you look at the Hebrew Bible...... it is all there to see. That is where I found these irregularities.

[BigJohn]

Originally Posted by ThatMan

EXCERPT
But then again, who is this guy Melchizedek? The actualy word is "WCVIKLN" and gets prononunced " mal-kee-tseh'-dek", Christ belongs to the order of Melchizedek.

I think you are referring to the Greek word that gets translated into English as Melchizedek.

The Greek word is Μελχισέδεκ which sounds in Greek as something like Melchisedek which seems to imply, when they translated the Hebrew word to Greek, they came up with a new word foreign to the original Hebrew word.

[ThatMan]

I knew about all those words for God and when I first saw this I was left speachless, really.

About Melchizedek, maybe there is a logical reason why they translated it this way, my friend, we are not scholars, anyway I m going to do more study about it. You know there are sources outside the Bible that talk about Melchizedek? This guy was really important.

[sky]

Originally Posted by ThatMan

I knew about all those words for God and when I first saw this I was left speachless, really.

About Melchizedek, maybe there is a logical reason why they translated it this way, my friend, we are not scholars, anyway I m going to do more study about it. You know there are sources outside the Bible that talk about Melchizedek? This guy was really important.

Ask RabbiO That Man, He's the expert on Hebrew here...

[Molearner]

Originally Posted by BigJohn

As we talk about Jesus' pre-human existence, we will probably talk about incarnation vs re-incarnation, especially as it applies to Jesus.

BigJohn,

This is slightly non-sensical…if one talks about incarnation and/or reincarnation you are talking about humans…..I.e. Melchizedek. The only way you can talk about the pre-human existence of Jesus is to speak of him in his spiritual form not any physical form.

[ThatMan]

Originally Posted by Molearner

BigJohn,

This is slightly non-sensical…if one talks about incarnation and/or reincarnation you are talking about humans…..I.e. Melchizedek. The only way you can talk about the pre-human existence of Jesus is to speak of him in his spiritual form not any physical form.

Then who appeared to Abraham? To whom gave Abraham to eat?

[BigJohn]

Did not Jesus incarnate into the physical in the first century?

[ThatMan]

Originally Posted by sky123

Ask RabbiO That Man, He's the expert on Hebrew here...

Thanks! I will!

[BigJohn]

Some people claim Jesus reincarnated in the first century but I see no purpose for him reincarnating. I believe it would have been an incarnation.

[BigJohn]

Originally Posted by ThatMan

EXCERPT

About Melchizedek, maybe there is a logical reason why they translated it this way, my friend, we are not scholars, anyway I m going to do more study about it.

A lot of words did not get translated properly. When they went from Hebrew to Greek in the Septuagint, a low of translation errors occurred. I guess trying to translate very fast was not a very good idea.............