I think we forget jesus was jewish, living in a jewish area ( if he existed). Even pilot passed off jesus the first time becasue, as jesus christ super star put it " hes harods race, hes harods case".

I think the main question should be either " what do people who practice judeism think of jesus", or this one elaborated " what do jewish people think of jesus".....


If im not mistakin, judaism never mentiones jesus. Only by mentioning the messiah, which is ASSUMED to be jesus, but this is after the OT ( which is essentialy the torah).

So i guess if you asking what the jewish faith think of JS ( i have to assume your meaning judaism), then read the OT/Torah, and im sure rabbio can reccommend some literature to read up on.

I thought the Immaculate Conception was the condition of Mary concieving Christ while still a virgin i.e. through God.

No, it's a Catholic doctrine that Mary was born without the taint of original sin.

jesus did not complete any of the tasks that the Messiah is supposed to complete. If anything, the opposite happened.

When Moshiach comes we can look forward to:

-All of the Jewish exiles moving back to Israel (after jesus the Jews were scattered all over the Earth)
-The Temple being rebuilt (after jesus, one of the Temples were destroyed)
-Lasting world peace (after jesus there were many wars...including two world wars)


On another note:

From what I understand, there is a concept in Christianity of believing in Jesus. As an indirect comparison, Jews didn't have to "believe" in Moses. The transmission of Torah didn't start with G-d speaking to one prophet who would gain a following over time. Instead, the entire Jewish Nation personally experienced divine revelation at the time of receiving the Torah at Mt. Sinai. You could consider Moses to be transparent.

-esther

I don't remember studying that in Catholic school... I thought she was born as a mortal, with original sin like everyone else, as she was conceived by humans. It was Jesus only, in Catholic doctrine, who was without original sin, I thought...

Immaculate conception is a very non-Torah idea. Besides, G-d is the third partner in every intimate union between husband and wife.

Exactly. I agree. That is how I understood it.

This little bit from Wikipedia -

"The Immaculate Conception of Mary is, according to Catholic doctrine, the conception of the Virgin Mary without any stain ("macula" in Latin) of Original Sin. It is one of the four dogmata in Roman Catholic Mariology. The doctrine states that, from the first moment of her existence, Mary was preserved by God from the Original Sin and filled with sanctifying grace that would normally come with baptism after birth. Catholics believe Mary "was free from any personal or hereditary sin".

From early on in the history of the Catholic Church, in numerous places in the writings of the Church Fathers, the belief is implied. In various places the feast of the Immaculate Conception had been celebrated for centuries on 8 December when, on 28 February 1476, Pope Sixtus IV extended it to the entire Latin Church. He did not define the doctrine as a dogma, thus leaving Roman Catholics free to believe in it or not without being accused of heresy; this freedom was reiterated by the Council of Trent. However, the feast was a strong indication of the Church's traditional belief in the Immaculate Conception. On 6 December 1708 Pope Clement XI decreed that the feast of the Immaculate Conception be a Holy Day of Obligation.[10] throughout the entire Catholic Church.

The Immaculate Conception was solemnly defined as a dogma by Pope Pius IX in his constitution Ineffabilis Deus on 8 December 1854."

B'shalom,

Peter

Why do you guys use the term G-d?

In truth it is a convention that has become minhag, custom, among many Jews. I appreciate the reason for it and so out of respect for my fellow Jews I follow it, even though I recognize that actually there is no need for it.

It revolves around the holiness of G-d's name and respect of G-d's name and the attempt to not do anything to profane it. I will not go into all the whys and wherefores, but as G-d is, in fact, not G-d's name there is no prohibition against using the "o". Furthermore, under halacha, Jewish law, prohibitions regarding the writing of G-d's name actually only apply to the name written in Hebrew.

This is one instance where Jews have created a fence, so to speak, in order to make sure that halacha is not violated.

B'shalom,

Peter