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Go Back   Spiritual Forums > Religions & Faiths > Christianity

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  #21  
Old 02-05-2011, 01:37 PM
Random
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Just a guess....or perhaps common sense.

I know everyone is caught up on the God vs. Lord God debate, and many of you are trying to justify it by different translations and such. But to me it comes down to plan ol simple writing.

God supernaturally inspired all of the authors of these books, and He didn't intend on making his readings this difficult.

In the first chapter God is referred to only as God, because he is creating. Everything is void. No one is on the earth as he creates it, right? Not until the 6th day. So God is God.

Now! When the bible is referencing God in chapter 2 after He has created everything, including man, He is referred to as Lord God. Why? Because you can not be a Lord unless you have someone to have authority over. Look up the definition to Lord.

Simple writing y'all. Lord = having authority over others. So why write Lord God in the first chapter, especially if it's written in chronological order?

It would make sense that the writer wanted you to know that God had no one on earth to rule over until he was finished creating the ground we walked on.

And I know some of you all are saying that the 4th verse of the second chapter is after the 7th day. Like I said, keep it simple. After the writer writes about the 7 day creation, he obviously takes you back a second and discusses what happened on the 6th day.

Too much digging in the weeds people. Just read the bible and accept God's, the Lord God's, goodness.
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  #22  
Old 02-05-2011, 08:04 PM
Bluegreen
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I have never come across such a clever explanation.
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  #23  
Old 24-05-2011, 10:52 AM
Bluegreen
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Quote:
Originally Posted by taoistscholar
It has come to recent attention that the bible explains of two "entities" under the title "God".

One is present throughout the first page and a half or so of the bible under the title "God", as "God" is the name we have translated from the original writings.

However, in addition the remaning thousand and more pages of the bible speak of a LORD God as oppose to the God mentioned in the opening.

I was curious as to what all of you, the spiritual community make of this dichotomy.

Is it a result of many different authors being responsible for the bible's creation?

or, is it so that LORD GOD and God are two very different entities? (God being the nurturing divinity and LORD GOD being the vengeful, punishing, wrathful, jealous ruler)

Below is a extensive explanation. The book from which this is quoted was published around 1885:

Quote:
As regards the evolution of mankind, the Secret Doctrine postulates three new propositions, which stand in direct antagonism to modern science as well as to current religious dogmas: it teaches (a) the simultaneous evolution of seven human groups on seven different portions of our globe; (b) the birth of the astral, before the physical body: the former being a model for the latter; and (c) that man, in this Round, preceded every mammalian — the anthropoids included — in the animal kingdom.*
————————————————� �—————————————
* See Genesis ch. ii., v. 19. Adam is formed in verse 7, and in verse 19 it is said: "Out of the ground the Lord God formed every beast of the field, and every fowl of the air; and brought them unto Adam to see what he would call them." Thus man was created before the animals; for the animals mentioned in chapter i. are the signs of the Zodiac, while the man, "male and female," is not man, but the Host of the Sephiroth; FORCES, or Angels, "made in his (God's) image and after his likeness." The Adam, man, is not made in that likeness, nor is it so asserted in the Bible. Moreover, the Second Adam is esoterically a septenary which represents seven men, or rather groups of men. For the first Adam — the Kadmon — is the synthesis of the ten Sephiroth. Of these, the upper triad remains in the Archetypal World as the future "Trinity," while the seven lower Sephiroth create the manifested material world; and this septenate is the second Adam. Genesis, and the mysteries upon which it was fabricated, came from Egypt. The "God" of the 1st chapter of Genesis is the Logos, and the "Lord God" of the 2nd chapter the Creative Elohim — the lower powers.
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  #24  
Old 24-05-2011, 02:02 PM
RabbiO RabbiO is offline
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Below is a extensive explanation. The book from which this is quoted was published around 1885:


Quote:
As regards the evolution of mankind, the Secret Doctrine postulates three new propositions, which stand in direct antagonism to modern science as well as to current religious dogmas: it teaches (a) the simultaneous evolution of seven human groups on seven different portions of our globe; (b) the birth of the astral, before the physical body: the former being a model for the latter; and (c) that man, in this Round, preceded every mammalian — the anthropoids included — in the animal kingdom.*
——————————————————————————————
* See Genesis ch. ii., v. 19. Adam is formed in verse 7, and in verse 19 it is said: "Out of the ground the Lord God formed every beast of the field, and every fowl of the air; and brought them unto Adam to see what he would call them." Thus man was created before the animals; for the animals mentioned in chapter i. are the signs of the Zodiac, while the man, "male and female," is not man, but the Host of the Sephiroth; FORCES, or Angels, "made in his (God's) image and after his likeness." The Adam, man, is not made in that likeness, nor is it so asserted in the Bible. Moreover, the Second Adam is esoterically a septenary which represents seven men, or rather groups of men. For the first Adam — the Kadmon — is the synthesis of the ten Sephiroth. Of these, the upper triad remains in the Archetypal World as the future "Trinity," while the seven lower Sephiroth create the manifested material world; and this septenate is the second Adam. Genesis, and the mysteries upon which it was fabricated, came from Egypt. The "God" of the 1st chapter of Genesis is the Logos, and the "Lord God" of the 2nd chapter the Creative Elohim — the lower powers.



Ah yes, the utter mangling by Theosophy of the Jewish mystical tradition, Kabbalah.

B'shalom,

Peter
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  #25  
Old 24-05-2011, 05:10 PM
7luminaries 7luminaries is offline
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Kabbalah generally associates usage of Elohim with the attribute or emanation of gevurah...of awe and fear of God. This is the attribute of God that defined the relationship of Noah to God...and, later, that of Isaac to God. A relationship of complete submission and trust based on humility, respect and awe.

Adonai (what we often say in place of the tetragrammaton) is associated in Kabbalah with the attribute or emanation of chesed...of compassion, lovingkindness, and love. This is is the attribute of God that defined the relationship of Abraham to God...A relationship of complete submission and trust based on humility, respect, admiration, and affection in the most intimate sense...

Kabbalah says that Jacob represents the attribute or emanation of tiferet...of balance, beauty, mercy, and compassion. He embodies the highest form of relationship with the Divine...one that includes and balances both love and awe in his relationship with God. Love and awe...these are the attributes of unconditional love. Both Adonai and Elohim.

Jacob loved all of God's nature. Which is all of our nature in its best and most evolved form, not leaving anything out that is God's due, that is our own due, and that is what we owe one another under God. According to our tradition, this is the relationship with God that we should all strive to attain.


Peace,
7L
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  #26  
Old 24-05-2011, 07:21 PM
Bluegreen
Posts: n/a
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by RabbiO
Below is a extensive explanation. The book from which this is quoted was published around 1885:


Quote:
As regards the evolution of mankind, the Secret Doctrine postulates three new propositions, which stand in direct antagonism to modern science as well as to current religious dogmas: it teaches (a) the simultaneous evolution of seven human groups on seven different portions of our globe; (b) the birth of the astral, before the physical body: the former being a model for the latter; and (c) that man, in this Round, preceded every mammalian — the anthropoids included — in the animal kingdom.*
——————————————————————————————
* See Genesis ch. ii., v. 19. Adam is formed in verse 7, and in verse 19 it is said: "Out of the ground the Lord God formed every beast of the field, and every fowl of the air; and brought them unto Adam to see what he would call them." Thus man was created before the animals; for the animals mentioned in chapter i. are the signs of the Zodiac, while the man, "male and female," is not man, but the Host of the Sephiroth; FORCES, or Angels, "made in his (God's) image and after his likeness." The Adam, man, is not made in that likeness, nor is it so asserted in the Bible. Moreover, the Second Adam is esoterically a septenary which represents seven men, or rather groups of men. For the first Adam — the Kadmon — is the synthesis of the ten Sephiroth. Of these, the upper triad remains in the Archetypal World as the future "Trinity," while the seven lower Sephiroth create the manifested material world; and this septenate is the second Adam. Genesis, and the mysteries upon which it was fabricated, came from Egypt. The "God" of the 1st chapter of Genesis is the Logos, and the "Lord God" of the 2nd chapter the Creative Elohim — the lower powers.



Ah yes, the utter mangling by Theosophy of the Jewish mystical tradition, Kabbalah.

B'shalom,

Peter

Until I come across a better explanation this will do. It is presented as one of, I guess, many explanations. It is up to the reader what they do with it.

You may have missed it, Peter, but in another thread (I forget which--there are so many that a newbie gets confused keeping track) where I quoted from The Secret Doctrine, I asked whether the translation could be confirmed by RabiO.

I would be grateful if you could point out where the above quote is incorrect.
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  #27  
Old 26-05-2011, 06:45 PM
RabbiO RabbiO is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Bluegreen
Until I come across a better explanation this will do. It is presented as one of, I guess, many explanations. It is up to the reader what they do with it.

You may have missed it, Peter, but in another thread (I forget which--there are so many that a newbie gets confused keeping track) where I quoted from The Secret Doctrine, I asked whether the translation could be confirmed by RabiO.

I would be grateful if you could point out where the above quote is incorrect.

Well, first I would like to respond to your other post. If you can figure out where it is let me know.

If you think a newbie has difficulty remembering, trying being an old f**t like me!

B'shalom,

Peter
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  #28  
Old 26-05-2011, 09:02 PM
Bluegreen
Posts: n/a
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by RabbiO
Well, first I would like to respond to your other post. If you can figure out where it is let me know.

If you think a newbie has difficulty remembering, trying being an old f**t like me!

B'shalom,

Peter

an old f**t , eh?
I will let you know if I find the thread.

By the way, have you read the entire Secret Doctrine? If so, I take off my hat to you. It has taken me a lifetime to even begin to understand it. I have not read all of it yet. My set consists of 6 volumes.
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  #29  
Old 03-06-2011, 02:39 PM
ete233
Posts: n/a
 
The calling of God and Lord are most likely edits done by the people that wrote the bible from different denominations throughout time. Not translations, edits.
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  #30  
Old 03-06-2011, 04:49 PM
RabbiO RabbiO is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Random
I know everyone is caught up on the God vs. Lord God debate, and many of you are trying to justify it by different translations and such. But to me it comes down to plan ol simple writing.

God supernaturally inspired all of the authors of these books, and He didn't intend on making his readings this difficult.

In the first chapter God is referred to only as God, because he is creating. Everything is void. No one is on the earth as he creates it, right? Not until the 6th day. So God is God.

Now! When the bible is referencing God in chapter 2 after He has created everything, including man, He is referred to as Lord God. Why? Because you can not be a Lord unless you have someone to have authority over. Look up the definition to Lord.

Simple writing y'all. Lord = having authority over others. So why write Lord God in the first chapter, especially if it's written in chronological order?

It would make sense that the writer wanted you to know that God had no one on earth to rule over until he was finished creating the ground we walked on.

And I know some of you all are saying that the 4th verse of the second chapter is after the 7th day. Like I said, keep it simple. After the writer writes about the 7 day creation, he obviously takes you back a second and discusses what happened on the 6th day.

Too much digging in the weeds people. Just read the bible and accept God's, the Lord God's, goodness.

You need to re-read Zenith's posts. The word translated as "lord" in many transalations is not the word "lord" at all, it is the tetragrammaton, G-d's four lettered name, spelled with the Hebrew letters Yod Hey Vav Hey. The translators followed the Jewish convention of not pronouncing G-d's name, but rather substituting the Hebrew word "adonai" which is the word for "lord."

B'shalom,

Peter
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