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Originally Posted by django
All the translations (and there are more and more as time goes by) from the 'original Aramaic' are fairly free and sometimes fairly self-indulgent interpretations of a couple of Syriac versions of the gospels. Syriac was not the language of Jesus, and the numerous fanciful interpretations that are mushrooming are just confusing New Agers and gnostics who prefer this sort of soft focus mysticism.
In the words of one scholar: "The less it looks like the Lord’s Prayer as you know it, the more likely it is to be a free paraphrase or interpretation rather than a translation."
See this article for an overview http://aramaicnt.org/2007/06/09/o-fa...of-the-cosmos/
The Jewish references to 'Thy will be done" that you posted earlier are a much better source for the meaning of the Lord's prayer, considering Jesus was a Jewish man who knew the Jewish texts. Why would he suddenly start sounding like some weird New Age mystic? |
' Why would he suddenly start sounding like some weird New Age mystic? '
Where does he sound like a New Age Mystic to you?