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Originally Posted by weareunity
Hello all.
As per thread title.
Wondering how intententional misrepresentation may be considered when looked at in terms of ethics and morality?
May not have posed the question very well--hope sufficient to understand however. Apologies if not--will try to clarify if necessary.
petex
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It's a form of dishonesty. It's a more cunning form of intelligence, and more common in highly competitive, business environments. It makes me think of the saying 'the end justifies the means', and then from an egoistic point of view. This kind of thing seems to work better in some places and cultures than in others. I do not consider it ethical.