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Old 15-01-2020, 04:44 AM
ajay00 ajay00 is offline
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Join Date: Feb 2014
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Altair
Yes, because they had contact. This was after Pythagoras.
How can you proclaim for sure this was after Pythagoras when the third-century AD greek philosopher Philostratus had claimed that Pythagoras also studied under Hindu sages in India.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Altair
Where is the evidence of Indian food, goods and teachings in Europe, or Greek food and goods in India, before Alexander?

I have mentioned about Indian articles like the Shivalingam being exhibited in museums in Rome. Western scholars like Will Durant have speculated on the similarities between Plato's philosophy of the philosopher-king and the Rajarshi ( saint-king) of Indian philosophy.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Altair
Possibly indirectly through Persia as a proxy but nothing grand.

Persia was a direct land route between India and Greece as well, and the Persians were a great civilization in itself then. This also could have brought about trade and cultural ties with the Greeks and not just the Mesapotamians.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Altair
Later on, post-Alexander, Indian culture seem more impacted by Greek culture than the other way around.

India gained in terms of sculpture and astrology from the Greeks, and Greeks like the Greek king Menander and others were influenced by Buddhism. Menander is even considered to be a great benefactor to Buddhism on par with Ashoka the Great.

The dialogues between Menander(Milinda) and buddhist monk Nagasena is a great historical work available today as well.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Greco-Buddhism

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Milinda_Panha

http://www.buddhanet.net/pdf_file/milinda.pdf
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