From the first sutra commentary, there is a discussion about the
existence of ignorance that I found interesting
and wanted to share before moving on to the second sutra.
The conclusion: Ignorance was really non-fullness of knowledge.
Yet this non-fullness of knowledge results in getting caught up with the entire worldly experience.
Does ignorance exist before realization?
"Let us examine the theory of the malas, the veils of ignorance.
Where does this ignorance exist?
How can we say that ignorance exists?
If ignorance is removed from God consciousness, it does not exist at all.
So where does it exist?
If ignorance is filled with the independent state of God consciousness, then it is not ignorance at all,
but fullness of God consciousness. (Ha!)
So ignorance cannot be found. Then what is it that remains?
What is left?
There is
only independent supreme God consciousness - which is the reality of the self.
..... Because at the time of realization, the aspirant realizes and knows that ignorance does not exist at all.
So that ignorance never exists. Whatever he called ignorance existed,
but it was not actually ignorance; it was really non-fullness of knowledge."