Do you think the Lord's Prayer is most powerful in original version?
 

I mean, when prayed in original version, which should be in this order; Aramaic (Christ language), 1st century Greek and then Latin.

Why this piece of job is asking such a thing? :D Because the Lord's Prayer is the only prayer I pray.

For whatever the reason I started to pray it in vulgar Latin.

Then, I started to change some words for the original words in ancient Greek.

I've come to the conclusion that the more original I keep the words, the more effective is the prayer. More soul filling. More meaningful even if you don't understand a single word.

Bible was written in Greek, including the Lord's Prayer as we know it, correct me if I'm wrong.

But Jesus spoke Aramaic. When the disciples asked Jesus how they should pray, they told them to pray like this, and then He taught them the Lord's Prayer... in Aramaic. Not in Greek, not in Latin and specially not in English that didn't even exist. And He said pray this and not that.

Not sure if there is an accurate translation from 1st century Greek to 1st century Aramaic but I would be willing to try.

I think Lord's Prayer in Greek is a mantra to be uttered in one's secret room.
Since we do not have original Greek MS we do not know exactly what is says.

Enjoy....

https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=locW-9S00VU

Why don't we have it?

Matthew 6:9-13, from which all others are directly or indirectly translated

9b Πάτερ ἡμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς ἁγιασθήτω τὸ ὄνομά σου·

10 ἐλθέτω ἡ βασιλεία σου· γενηθήτω τὸ θέλημά σου, ὡς ἐν οὐρανῷ καὶ ἐπὶ της γῆς·

11 τὸν ἄρτον ἡμῶν τὸν ἐπιούσιον δὸς ἡμῖν σήμερον·

12 καὶ ἄφες ἡμῖν τὰ ὀφειλήματα ἡμῶν, ὡς καὶ ἡμεῖς ἀφήκαμεν τοῖς ὀφειλέταις ἡμῶν·

13 καὶ μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς πειρασμόν, ἀλλὰ ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ.

[ὅτι σοῦ ἐστιν ἡ βασιλεία καὶ ἡ δύναμις καὶ ἡ δόξα εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας. ἀμήν.]
Transliterated

Pater hēmōn ho en tois uranois
hagiasthētō to onoma sou;
elthetō hē basileia sou;
genēthētō to thelēma sou,
hōs en ouranō kai epi tēs gēs;
ton arton hēmōn ton epiousion dos hēmin sēmeron;
kai aphes hēmin ta opheilēmata hēmōn,
hōs kai hēmeis aphēkamen tois opheiletais hēmōn;
kai mē eisenengkēis hēmas eis peirasmon,
alla rhusai hēmas apo tou ponērou.
[Hoti sou estin hē basileia kai hē dynamis kai hē doxa eis tous aiōnas.
Amēn.]

BTW, the meaning of epiousion was lost in time. At some point, it was translated as quotidianum in Latin, but probably not accurate.

Therefore, I added "et epiousion" to my Latin prayer;

Panem nostrum cotidianum *et epiousion*

In this way, you have the best of both worlds, just in case you're missing something important.


Great! thank you :smile: I love it.

Original MS was not discovered.
Imo, explained by Matthew 13.

Hey G.Duval, none of the original manuscripts of the New Testament books have survived. We only have copies of copies.

It would be amazing to find a 1st century bound book :smile: The oldest one is a half destroyed book containing Gnostic texts from 4th century. Also, the Dead Sea Scrolls (around 1 BC and 1 AD).

that is my point- we do not have original MS only a copy of a copy...
May be one day they will discover like Hag Hammadi texts.
To get an idea how important is original MS, for example, see meru.org Stan Tenen research. https://m.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL19D16F54EEB38D82

Usually original of everything is best!!

Not sure if there is an accurate translation from 1st century Greek to 1st century Aramaic but I would be willing to try.[/quote]


The Lords prayer is the model prayer. God wants one to pray out of their hearts, not quote a single prayer over and over. There are no originals left in existence.

Ok, thanks :smile:

I agree, I don't think there was any translation from 1st century Greek to 1st century Aramaic.

In the Roman world the scholar language wasn't Latin, it was Greek. Roman elite spoke Greek between them.

There is a strong chance that some disciples spoke Greek. Peter an Andrew very probably.

Not sure about Matthew though. His Gospel probably went from Aramaic to Greek and never otherwise.