Clear Blue Sky,
I'm afraid I don't see where the 2 links show examples where a daytime and/or a night was said to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have occurred. |
maybe this link that has a chart on how Hebrew hours are renderd.
http://torahcalendar.com/HOUR.asp I understand though that gospel of John used the Roman calendar accounting system for days. It may be for those texts too that somewhere in the Hebrew to greek translation (especially if by word of mouth) the recokings got meshed together. Must have been a constant cultural thing where Jews and Gentiles mixed with different counting systems. is there a reason behind your seeking the answer? |
Clear Blue Sky,
re: "maybe this link that has a chart on how Hebrew hours are renderd." That information may be useful for a future topic, but I'm afraid it has nothing to do with regard to my question. Let me ask you; exactly what is it that you think I am requesting? re: "is there a reason behind your seeking the answer?" For the purpose of this topic it's simply curiosity. |
OK... sounds like you are looking for a TEXT that contains the IDIOM and also demonstrates in itself that it is referring to a time frame not LITERALLY like the Idiom....
I don't know any off the top of my head. You might try the works of Josephus. He wrote chronologies of Jewish Histories that included both summaries and interpretations, and also plot-like story line sequences. It could be that such an idiom or similar was used in his work. Also he wrote maybe around the time the gosepls were being written down, and also was a Jewish writer translating into the Roman languages. Two I know of his were "Antiquities of the Jews" -- which covers the Jewish story from the book of Genesis up to 70 A.D. and "Wars of the Jews" which describes among perhaps other things the Jewish conquest by the Romans around 70 A.D. |
Very simple really:
(1) Jesus hung on the cross from 9 noon till 3 P.M. (2) On hearing of Jesus' death, Sanhedrinist Joseph of Arimathea asked Pilate to have Jesus' corpse removed so it wouldn't pollute the Sabbath, which would begin in 3 hours. Therefore, Jesus was indeed crucified on [Good] Friday. (4) The earliest NT tradition records that Jesus rose again "on the third day," not after the third day. Therefore, Jesus rose again on Easter Sunday, just as the earliest tradition reports. (5) Jesus' Jonah analogy is offered only as a rough comparison. |
ElectricQuest,
re: "(4) The earliest NT tradition records that Jesus rose again "on the third day," not after the third day." Mark 8:31 - "And He began to teach them that...after three days rise again." |
There are many doubts that Jesus could have had the Last Supper on Thursday, then Friday morning to undergo three trials, and to be crucified either by 9 AM or by 12 according to two gospels. It is quite likely the Last Supper to have taken place on Wednesday, some say even on Tuesday. We know for sure he resurrected on the first day of the week, that is our Sunday.
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Ezdra,
re: "We know for sure he resurrected on the first day of the week...? I am not aware of any incontrovertible scripture which says that the resurrection occurred on the first day of the week. What do you have in mind? Since it has again been awhile, perhaps someone new looking in who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week, and who thinks that the three nights specified in Matthew 12:40 actually means two nights because the verse is using common Jewish idiomatic language, will know of some writing as requested in the OP as clarified in post #36. |
It appears that there are no 6th day of the week crucifixion advocates who frequent this forum, or at least any that think that Matthew 12:40 is using common idiomatic language.
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