The resolution of the 'problem' can be found by careful reading of the text, especially John.

The confusion arises in conflating the Passover (an annual Sabbath) with the common practice of the Jewish weekly Sabbath, Friday/Saturday (dusk to dusk).

The date of the Sabbath of the Passover was determined by the lunar calendar, not by the day of the week. If we work the dates from the Jewish calendar, as do the authors of the Gospels, then the question is resolved.

Taking AD30 as the most likely date, and following the days given in Scripture, we get:
Nisan 14 (Wednesday):
Preparation day for the annual Sabbath.
In the morning, Jesus was brought before Pilate the governor.
Jesus was crucified and dies around 3PM
At the same time, the sacrificial lambs were being slaughtered in the Temple.
Jesus' body was placed in the tomb at twilight

Nisan 15 (Thursday)
This was the first annual Sabbath or high-day - the first day of Unleavened Bread. Tomb is guarded and secured by sealing it with a stone.
The annual Sabbath ends at sunset.

Nisan 16 (Friday)
The Sabbath now over, the women bought and prepared spices for anointing Jesus' body.
The weekly Sabbath begins at sunset Friday night. No work is to be done as commanded in the fourth commandment.

Nisan 17 (Saturday)
The weekly Sabbath.
The women rested on the weekly Sabbath.
The weekly Sabbath ends at sunset Saturday night.

Nisan 18 (Sunday)
The women brought the prepared spices early in the morning while it was still dark. When they arrived they found that Jesus had already arisen.

So the best we can know is Christ arose sometime between dusk on Nisan 16 and dawn of Nisan 18, but the news of the Resurrection came known on the Sunday.

Our Lord was thus dead and buried three days – dusk on the Wednesday to Thursday (1 day), Thursday to Friday (2 days), Friday to Saturday (3 days).

We can then posit, in line with His prophecy, that He arose sometime after dusk on the Saturday night, and the empty tomb was discovered at dawn on the Sunday morning.

Someone new looking in may know of some writing.

Perhaps a further rewording of the OP will make it a bit more clear: Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that it is using common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights? If it is using common idiomatic language, there ought to be examples of that usage in order to be able to make that assertion.

Denys,
re: "The confusion arises in conflating the Passover (an annual Sabbath) with the common practice of the Jewish weekly Sabbath, Friday/Saturday (dusk to dusk)."


That's an issue for another topic.

Since it has again been awhile, perhaps someone new looking in who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week, and who thinks that the three nights specified in Matthew 12:40 actually means two nights because the verse is using common Jewish idiomatic language, will know of some writing as requested in the OP and as expanded on in post #33.

Perhaps a further rewording of the OP will make it a bit more clear: Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with some 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that it is using common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights? If it is using common idiomatic language, there ought to be examples of that usage in order to be able to make that assertion.

And remember, the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. There are other topics that do that. But as I said, there are some who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language such as the Messiah saying that He would be in the heart of the earth for 3 nights when He knew that it would only be for 2 nights. So again, in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern was used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise. So far no one has come forth with any.

With the new year upon us, maybe there will be someone new looking in who knows of examples as requested in the OP and clarified in further posts. And again, remember that the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. As stated, there are other topics that do that. However, there are those who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language so that the Messiah's forecast of 3 nights really meant 2 nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern had to have been used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise. So far no one has come forth with any.

as I understand it in Jewish thinking the 'day' begins with sundown. which is regarded as the night. So you have friday sundown, and Saturday sundown.... that would be two nights. three days would be friday afternoon, Saturday, and then the sundown-to-early-morning sunday bit.

To be honest it's not a thing I dwell on. Yeah it would be "nice" if there was some obscure prophesy fulfilled that way.... but isn't the prophesy reference itself subject to interpretation? I don't see the three-ness as highly relevant..... something a pattern-maker slipped in afterwards maybe. Like how in one of the gospels they link the last supper/crucifixion with Passover; and in another gospel the link is either not there or not accentuated. But that happens with long-term memory, and word-of-mouth, which is how these stories were translated and transmitted.

Once more, "remember that the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth."

Here's a link with some other apart-from-jesus references: http://www.ancientbiblehistory.com/f...ys_nights.html

and info on Hebrew calendar from Hebrews http://torahcalendar.com/SUNSET.asp